So, in EP you can say "digo-te/dizemos-te" or "amo-te" when in official BP a single have to say "eu te digo/nos te dizemos" or "eu te amo" rather than (the "wrong way") "te digo/te dizemos" or "te amo" (used only in pretty casual spoken language).
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- is there a means to determine that is which based on the general spelling, term kind and expertise in tension site?
- is there a way to figure out and that is which dependant on the overall spelling, word type and understanding of strain locale?
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He laughed and mentioned which the word was pretty offensive and that it likely wasn't the ideal of Tips to connect with a Malaysian individual it.
- is always that a thing that occurs Normally with speech mainly because of the word size with regard to syllables/sounds?
Now, the confusion arises from The reality that I don't hear this diphthongized o while in the aforementioned and many other phrases at forvo.com.
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de meu pai sounds very official almost everywhere in Brazil, besides when infinitive clause is employed: de meu pai fazer, which is typically heard in Bahia).
The greater formal text is, the fewer content articles and express pronouns the thing is. In newspapers headlines, the most official style of all, the thing is one of the most Serious conditions of dismissal of content and pronouns.
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I am striving to be familiar with the pronunciation Principles from the varied incomplete and misleading sources. I do not know why It is like that with Portuguese.
Eu sei que vou te amar. (''eu sei que eu vou te amar'' Appears pure much too, ''sei que vou te amar'' may be felt as much too bare / newscastish to some people: in headlines they alway dismiss pronouns, posts etc, that's why it may seem as ''newscastese'').
Are classified as the dictionaries Completely wrong or outdated? Or do they go over another dialect of Brazilian Portuguese than that shown at forvo? Or am I deaf?